Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 01.07.2025 01:52
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Monday Leaderboard: Keegan Bradley has a Ryder Cup conundrum of his own making - Yahoo Sports
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Here's a fresh look at Clockwork Revolution, coming "in due time" - Eurogamer
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.